Human Anatomy and Physiology Chapter wise MCQs as per PCI Syllabus for University, pharmacy exams like GPAT,NIPER,RRB and DI exam

Human Anatomy and Physiology Chapter-wise MCQs as per PCI Syllabus for University, pharmacy exams like GPAT,NIPER,RRB and DI exam

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List of chapters

general physiology
General Physiology Explanation
Anatomy Mcqs
Blood circulation
Nervous system
Nervous system answers

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01.All Chapters 

1)A muscle which flexes both hip and knee joints is-

A. gluteus maximus

B. biceps femoris

C. rectus femoris

D. sartorius

Ans. D

 

2) Which of the following structures is likely to get damaged when the semiflexed

knee is suddenly rotated medially

A. anterior cruciate ligament

B. lateral meniscus

C. medial meniscus

D. posterior cruciate ligament

Ans. C

 

3) Trendelenberg's test is positive in following conditions EXCEPT;

A. dislocation of hip

B. fracture neck femur

C. paralysis of gluteus medius

D. paralysis of gluteus maximus

Ans. D

 

4) Gyrus occupying Broca's speech area is

A. superior frontal

B. middle frontal

C. inferior frontal

D. superior temporal

Ans. C

 

5)In midbrain following structures are found at the level of occulomotor nerve

nucleus

A. red nucleus

B. pretectal nucleus

C. substantia nigra

D. decussation of superior cerebellar peduncle

Ans. D

 

6) Following are all the features of cerebellar lesions EXCEPT

A. dysdidochokinesis

B. nystagmus

C. rigidity of voluntary muscles

D. intention tremors

 

Ans. C

7) The nerve having Edinger Westphall nucleus as its component is

A. occulomotor

B. trochlear

C. trigeminal

D. abducent

Ans. A

 

8) Pharyngotypanic tube connects the middle ear cavity with-

A. oropharynx

B. nasopharynx

C. nasal cavity

D. laryngo pharynx

Ans. B

9) Only abductor of vocal cords is

A. posterior cricoarytenoid

B. inter arytenoid

C. lateral crico arytenoid

D. cricothyroid

Ans. A

 

10) Sensory nerve for upper lip is-

A. facial

B. infra orbital

C. buccal

D. external nasal

Ans. B

 

11) Structure passing deep to hyoglossus is-

A. hypoglossal nerve

B. myelohyoid nerve

C. submandibular duct

D. lingual artery

Ans. D

12) Lining epithelium of lung alveolus is

A. simple columnar

B. simple cuboidal

C. simple squamous

D. pseudo stratified ciliated columnar

Ans. C

13) Commonest type of inversion of testes is

A. superior

B. anterior

C. lateral

D. loop

Ans. B

14)Following are the contents of inguinal canal in males EXCEPT;

A. ilio-inguinal nerve

B. spermatic cord

C. artery to vas deference

D. ilio hypogastric nerve

Ans. D

 

15) Conjoint tendon is formed by-

A. External and internal oblique

B. external oblique and transversus abdominis

C. internal oblique and transversus

abdominis

D. internal oblique alone

Ans. C

 

16) Commonest position of appendix is-

A. retrocaecal

B. sub caecal

C. pelvic

D.preileal

Ans. A

 

17) Nerve piercing and lying on psoas major is-

A. ilio inguinal

B. ilio hypogastric

C. femoral

D. genitofemoral

Ans. D

 

18) 2nd part of duodenum is developed from

A. foregut and midgut

B. midgut and hindgut

C. only forgut

D. only midgut

Ans. A

 

19) Transverse colon develops from-

A. foregut and midgut

B. midgut and hindgut

C. only hindgut

D. only midgut

Ans. B

 

20) Following are the boundaries of epiploeic foramen EXCEPT;

A. free edge of lesser omentum

B. quadrate lobe of liver

C. 1st part of duodenum

D. inferior vena cava

Ans. B

 

21) Left testicular vein drains in

A. inferior vena cava

B. left renal

C. left internal iliac

D. left common iliac

Ans. B

 

22) All are the contents of supeficial perineal pouch EXCEPT;

A. bulbo urethral gland

B. superior transverse pereni

V. dorsal nerve of penis

D. dorsal artery of penis

Ans. A

 

23) Abnormal lateral curvature of vertebral column is known as

A. kyphosis

B. lordosis

C. scoliosis

D. spondylolisthesis

Ans. C

 

24)Which of the following nerves is involved in fracture neck humerus?

A. ulnar

B. median

C. axillary

D. radial

Ans. C

 

25) Following muscles produce elevation of scapula EXCEPT;

A. rhomboidius major

B. rhomboidius minor

C. trapezius

D. serratus anterior

 

Ans. D

26)Following veins are tributaries of portal vein EXCEPT ;

A. right gastric

B. left gastric

C. splenic

D. inf. phrenic

Ans. D

 

27) Following are the single gene disorders EXCEPT;

A. Duchene muscle dystrophy

B. spina bifida

C. haemophilia

D. sickle cell anemia

Ans. B

 

28) Nerve supply of pyramidalis muscle is-

A. ilio inguinal

B. subcostal

C. genitofemoral

D. ilio hypogastric

Ans. B

 

29) Branchial efferent column in pons innervates muscles of-

A. larynx

B. mastication

C. pharynx

D. eye

Ans. B

 

30. Cerebellum sends efferent fibres to each of the following EXCEPT;

A. red nucleus

B. thalamus

C. substantia nigra

D. reticular formation

Ans. C

 

31) The major neurotransmitter secreted in substantia nigra is

A. dopamine

B. serotonin

C. noradrenalin

D. gamma amino butyric acid

Ans. A

 

32)Following muscles are inserted into greater trochanter of femur EXCEPT;

A. gluteus maximus

B.gluteus medius

C. gluteus minimus

D.pyriformis

Ans. A

 

33) Following bones take part in lateral longitudinal arch EXCEPT;

A. calcaneous

B. cuboid

C. talus

D.5th metacarpal

Ans. C

 

34) First tributary of internal jugular vein is

A. superior thyroid vein

B. inferior petrosal sinus

C. lingual vein

D. facial vein

Ans. B

 

35) Nerve supplying the skin over the mandible is-

A. great auricular

B. greater occipital

 

C. mandibular

D. facial

Ans. A

 

36) Calcitonin is secreted by

A. follicular cells of thyroid

B. chief cells of thyroid

C. oxyphil cells of parathyroid

D.parafollicular cells of parathyroid

Ans. B

 

37) Following are the contents of middle ear cavity EXCEPT;

A. incus

B. stapedius

C. chorda tympani

D. facial nerve

Ans. D

 

38) Which nerve injury results in ptosis

A. occulumotor

B. trochlear

C.supraorbital

D. facial

Ans. A

 

39) Following structures represent derivatives of dorsal mesogastrium EXCEPT;

A. greater omentum

B.lesser omentum

C. gastrosplenic ligament

D. linorenal ligament

Ans. A

 

40) Following structures form stomach bed EXCEPT;

A. splenic vein

B. splenic artery

C. left kidney

D. left suprarenal

Ans. A

 

41)Structure crossed by root of mesentry is-

A. left ureter

B. left gonadal vessels

C. inferior mesenteric artery

D. 3rd part of duodenum

Ans. D

 

42)Nerve carrying secretomotor fibres for parotid gland is-

A. auriculo temporal

B. great auricular

C. zygomatico temporal

D. posterior auricular

Ans. A

 

43) The corneal reflex is absent in the lesion of

A. supra orbital

B. opthalmic nerve

C. infra orbital

D. occulomotor

Ans. B

 

44) Average diameter of ureter is

A. 3mm

B. 5mm

C. 7mm

D. 9mm

Ans. A

 

45) Lymph nodes receiving lymphatics from testis are-

A. deep inguinal

B. internal iliac

C external iliac

D. para-aortic

Ans. D

 

46) All are the contents of spermatic cord EXCEPT;

A. ductus deference

B. testicular artery

C. ilioinguinal nerve

D. pampiniform plexus

Ans. C

 

47) Following muscles are the abductors of eye EXCEPT;

A. superior oblique

B. superior rectus

C. inferior oblique

D. lateral rectus

Ans. B

 

48) Disc between which vertebra corresponds to the highest point on the iliac

crest?

A. L1-L2

B. L2-L3

C. L3-L4

D. L4-L5

Ans. C

 

49) Following muscles produce medial rotation of humerus EXCEPT;

A. pectoralis major

B. pectoralis minor

C. subscapularis

D. lattisimus dorsi

Ans. B

 

50) Damage to which nerve results in an inability to oppose thumb to the little

finger?

A. median

B. ulnar

C. radial

D. anterior interosseous

Ans. A

 

51) Following structures are related to mediastinal surface of left lung

EXCEPT;

A. left atrium

B.ascending aorta

C. arch of aorta

D. oesophagus

Ans. A

52) Following are the features of broncho pulmonary segment EXCEPT;

A. wedge shape mass of lung

B. contains segmental artery

C. contains segmental vein

D. aerated by tertiary bronchus

Ans. C

 

53) Tract present in superior. cerebellar peduncle is-

A. posterior spino cerebellar

B. anterior spinocerebellar

C. cortico ponto cerebellar

D. olivo- cerebellar

Ans. B

 

54) The nucleus located deep to facial colliculus is-

A. trigeminal

B. abducens

C. facial

D. vestibulo cochlear

Ans. B

 

55) Gland receiving secretomotor fibres from pterygo palatine ganglion is -

A. lacrimal

B. submandibular

C. sublingual

D. parotid

Ans. A

 

56) Following are the contents of carpal tunnel EXCEPT;

A. median nerve

B. ulnar nerve

C. flexor pollicis longus

D. flexor carpi radialis

Ans. B

 

57)Nerve responsible for fine movements of hand is

A. radial

 B. ulnar

C. median

D. post. interosseous

Ans. B

 

58) Posterior cord of brachial plexus gives following branches EXCEPT;

A. thoracodorsal B

. axillary

C. suprascapular

D. subscapular

Ans. C

 

59) Pulsations of the femoral artery can be felt at-

A. mid inguinal point

B. mid point of inguinal ligament

C. 3.8cm infero lateral to pubic tubercle

D. 1.5cm above mid inguinal point

Ans. A

 

60) Following muscles are supplied by femoral nerve EXCEPT

A. psoas major

B. iliacus

C. pectineus

D. sartorius

Ans. A

 

61) Following are the sites of internal haemorrhoids EXCEPT;

A. 3 o'clock

B. 5 o'clock

C. 7 o'clock

D. 11 o'clock

Ans. B

 

62) Ansa cervicalis innervates which muscle

A. mylohyoid

B. cricothyroid

C. stylohyoid

D. sternohyoid

Ans. D

 

63) Muscle derived from 2nd arch of mesoderm is-

A. medial pterygoid

B. lateral pterygoid

C. buccinator

D. masseter

Ans. C

 

64) Foramen secundum is a gap in

A. septum primun

B. septum secundum

C. septum spurium

D. septum intermedium

Ans. A

65) Following are tributaries of cavernous sinus EXCEPT

A. sup. opthalmic vein

B. central vein of retina

C. great cerebral vein

D. inferior opthalmic vein

Ans. C

 

66) Nerve carrying sense of taste from circumvallate papillae is

A chorda tympani

B. lingual

C. glossopharyngeal

D. vagus

Ans. C

 

67) Sensory nerve for larynx above the level of vocal cord is

A. external laryngeal

B. ansa cervicalis

C. recurrent laryngeal

D. internal laryngeal

Ans. D

 

68) Cornea lacks all EXCEPT

A. blood supply

B. nerve supply

C. lymphatics

D. colour

Ans. B

 

69) Internal mammrry artery supplies all EXCEPT

A. upper 6 intercostal spaces

B. mammary gland

C. fibrous pericardium

D. visceral pleura

Ans. D

 

70) Chromosome constitution of secondary oocyte is-

A. 23, Y

B. 23,X

C. 46,XY

D. 46,XX

Ans. B

 

71) Following individuals show presence of Barr body EXCEPT

A. normal female

B.super female

C. Turner's syndrome

D. Klinefelter's syndrome

Ans. c

02.General physiology 

1. The water content of lean body mass is about:

A. 30 ml/100 g

B. 50 ml/100 g

C. 70 ml/100 g

D. highly variable

2. Body mass index is calculated as:

A. weight in pounds by height in meters

B. weight in kg by height in

meters

C. weight in kg divided by square of height in meter squared

D. weight in kg divided by body surface area

3. The most abundant cation in ICF is

A. Sodium

B. Potassium

C. Magnesium

D. Calcium

4. The most abundant anion in ECF is

A. bicarbonate

B. chloride

C. phosphate

D. protein anion

5. ECF volume is determined by:

A. plasma [Na]

B. plasma protein concentration

C. the amount of sodium in the ECF

D.None

6. The body fluid compartment that contains more osmotically active

particles (in relation to other fluid compartments in the same individual)

is:

A. intracellular fluid

B. plasma

C. interstitial fluid

 

7. The following values are obtained on a sample of serum from a child that

has clinical evidence of dehydration.

Serum [Na] = 135 mmol/L

Serum [glucose] = 540 mg/dL

Serum [urea nitrogen] = 56 mg/dL

The osmolality of serum is expected to be close to:

A. 290 mOsm/kg H2O

B. 300 mOsm/kg H2O

C. 310 mOsm/ kg H2O

D. 320 mOsm/kg H2O

E. 330 mOsm/kg H2O

8. The following values are obtained on a sample of serum from a child that

has clinical evidence of dehydration. Serum [Na] = 130 mmol/L Serum

[glucose] = 540 mg/dL Serum [urea nitrogen] = 56 mg/dL Assuming there

are no toxins in ECF, the effective serum osmolality is approximately:

A. 290 mOsm/kg H2O

B. 300 mOsm/kg H2O

C. 310 mOsm/ kg H2O

D. 320 mOsm/kg H2O

E. 330 mOsm/kg H2O

9. What percentage of osmolality of plasma in a healthy, well

hydrateindividual is attributable to sodium and its accompanying anions?

A. 30 %

B. 50 %

C. 70 %

D. 90 %

10. Which of the following contributes least to the osmolality of plasma?

A. Glucose

B.Protein

C. Sodium

D. Urea

11. The osmolar concentration of sodium in normal human plasma is

approximately:

A. 275 – 295 mOsm/L

B. 135 – 145 mOsm/L

C. 240 – 250 mOsm/L

D. 95 – 110 mOsm/L

12. In the steady state, the value of which of the following variables is the

same in ICF and ECF?

A. pH

B. Osmolality

C. Concentration of proteins

D. Number of osmoles

13. Which compartment does the term “sucrose space” refer to?

A. Extracellular fluid (ECF)

B. Interstitial fluid (ISF)

C. Intracellular fluid (ICF)

D. Plasma

14. The volume of distribution of intravenously administered sucrose in a

healthy well hydrated 70-kg man is about:

A. 3.5 liters

B. 10.5 liters

C. 14 liters

D. 28 liters

15. In a healthy adult, ECF volume constitutes what fraction of body

weight?

A. 10% 

B. 20% 

C. 30% 

D. 40%

16. In a healthy adult male weighing 70 kg, the total volume of fluid present

in the transcellular compartment does not normally exceed:

A. 1 liter

B. 3 liters

C. 5 liters

D. 7 liters

17. Which of the following markers administered intravenously distributes

exclusively in intracellular fluid?

A. Evans blue dye

B. Heavy water

C. Sucrose

D. None of the above

18. Which of the following substances can be used as a marker for the ECF

compartment?

A. Nonmetabolizable sugars

B. Glucose

C. Radio-iodinated albumin

D. D2O

19. Which of the following markers is incorrectly matched with its volume

of distribution?

A. Antipyrine - total body water

B. Inulin - ECF volume

C. Evans blue - plasma volume

D. I125 albumin - blood volume

20. 100 mg of sucrose is injected intravenously into an adult male weighing

70 kg. The plasma concentration of sucrose after mixing is 0.01 mg/ml. If 5

mg of sucrose has been metabolized during this period, the ECF volume in

this individual is approximately:

A. 6 liters

B. 9.5 liters

C. 14 liters

D. 17.5 liters

21. A known amount of heavy water and inulin are injected intravenously

into a healthy 35 year old male. The volume of distribution of heavy water

and inulin were 36 liters and 12 liters respectively. Which of the following

estimations is most likely?

A. Plasma volume is 6 liters.

B. Interstitial fluid volume is 6 liters.

C. ICF volume is 28 liters.

D. ECF volume is 12 liters.

22. In a healthy adult weighing 70 kg, plasma volume was estimated to be

3000 ml. His hematocrit was 40%. His blood volume is approximately:

A. 5000 ml

B. 5200 ml

C. 5400 ml

D. 5600 ml

23. What fraction of total body potassium is present in plasma?

A. 0.4%

B. 8.2%

C. 12%

D. 88%

24. A substance injected intravenously was found to be distributed through

35% of total body water. Which of the following is most likely?

A. It did not pass through blood capillaries.

B. It entered neurons and cerebral ventricles.

C. It did not enter cells.

D. It was excluded from ‘third spaces’.

25. Of the following substances, the lipid bilayer per se (i.e., without

proteins) is most permeable to:

A. sodium ions

B. urea

C. glucose

D. water

26. Red blood cells from a healthy individual were placed in each of the

following solutions and observations were made after 1 hour. Cells would

have most likely have lysed when placed in:

A. 0.3% NaCl

B. 0.9% NaCl

C. 1.2% NaCl

27. Which of the following solutions is hypertonic?

A. 0.9 % NaCl

B. 5% dextrose

C. 20% mannitol

D. Distilled water

28. The volume of RBC placed in a NaCl solution with an osmolality of 280

mOsm/Kg H2O is 100 femtoliters. What will be the steady state volume

when they are placed in a NaCl solution with an osmolality of 350

mOsm/Kg H2O?

A. 120 fL

B. 80 fL

C. 50 fL

D. Data inadequate

29. ICF volume does not change when dehydration is:

A. isotonic

B. hypertonic

C. hypotonic

30. Two liters of 0.9% NaCl is administered to a 12-year old boy with

moderate isotonic dehydration. What is the expected change in ICF volume

after NaCl administration?

A. No change

B. Increase by 0.5 liter

C. Increase by 2 liters

D. Decrease by 0.5 liter

E. Decrease by 2 liters

31. ICF volume decreases when dehydration is:

A. isotonic

B. hypertonic

C. hypotonic

32. If the intent is to replenish total body water in a dehydrated individual

which of the following should be administered intravenously?

A. 0.9% NaCl

B. 5% dextrose solution

C. Albumin

D. 10% glucose solution

E. Distilled water

33. Cell volume and pressure is mainly dependent upon activity of:

A. Na glucose co transporter

B. Na-K pump

C. glucose transporter

D. Na-Ca exchanger

34. Which of the following exerts the greatest osmotic effect across

capillaries on a mole-mole basis?

A. Sodium

B. Chloride

C. Dextran

D. Hydroxyethyl starch

E. Albumin

F. Fibrinogen

35. The rate of diffusion of a substance across thecell membrane is

inversely proportional to:

A. concentration gradient for the substance

B. diffusion coefficient

C. surface area available for diffusion

D. thickness of the membrane

36. Which of the following modes of transport across the cell membrane is

quantitatively more important for flux of ions?

A. Diffusion

B. Filtration

C. Vesicular transport

37. Amongst plasma proteins, albumin makes the greatest contribution to

the colloid osmotic pressure of plasma proteins because, relative to most

plasma proteins, albumin:

A. is the most abundant plasma protein m

B. has the longest half-life

C. has the lowest molar mass

D. exits the capillary fastest

38. Osmotic pressure of crystalloids is not included in the Starling’s

equation describing fluid exchange across capillaries because:

A. they were discovered after Starling described the forces

B. crystalloids carry electric charges

C. crystalloids diffuse freely across the capillary endothelium

D. the quantity of crystalloids in plasma is negligible compared to plasma

proteins

39. The term oncotic pressure is applied to osmotic pressure exerted by:

A. albumin and other plasma proteins across the capillary wall

B. crystalloids across the cell membrane

C. hemoglobin across the capillary wall

D. substances such as urea, lactate, glucose across the cell membrane

40. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

A. Microfilaments: actin, myosin

B. Intermediate filaments: vimentin, keratin

C. Microtubules: clathrin

D. Cytoskeleton: spectrin, ankyrin

41. The mitotic spindle is made up of a protein called:

A. tubulin

B. caveolin

C. connexion

D. annexin

42. The mitochondrial genome is absent from:

A. sperm cells

B. ovum

C. mature red blood cells

D. white blood cells

43. Cytosolic calcium concentration in unexcited cells is about:

A. 2.5 mM

B. 10 mM

C. 150 μM

D. 100 nM

44. Most of the calcium in the endoplasmic reticulum is sequestered by:

A. calmodulin

B. caldesmin

C. calbindin

D. calsequestrin

 

45. Which of the following statements regarding regulation of cell cycle is

incorrect?

A. This serves to regulate transition of the cell from one phase of the cell cycle

to the next.

B. At restriction points, cyclins always promote transition from G0 to S phase.

C. Defects in DNA synthesis normally allow progression from G2 to M phase.

D. Deficiency of p53 allows progression to M phase.

46. Which of the following is an example of primary active transport?

A. Ca extrusion from cells by the Na-Ca exchanger

B. Glucose entry into cells through glucose transporter 2 (GLUT-2)

C. H2O flux across cell membranes through aquaporins

D. Glucose uptake into intestinal epithelial cells by Na-glucose cotransporter 1

(SGLT-1)

E. Ca sequestration in sarcoplasmic reticulum by Ca-ATPase

47. Sodium-glucose cotransport in the intestine and kidney is an example

of:

A. primary active transport

B. secondary active transport

C. facilitated diffusion

D. passive transport

48. Which of the following is / are active transport processes? (Select all correct

answers).

A. Extrusion of calcium into ECF

B. Efflux of K during repolarization

C. Entry of chloride into neurons

D. Transcytosis (vesicular transport)

49. Which of the following processes is ATP dependent? (Select all correct

answers)

A. Acidification of lysosomes

B. Actin-myosin cross bridge cycling

C. Exocytosis

D. Micropinocytosis

50. Which of the following transport processes is mediated by a carrier

protein in the plasma membrane? (Select all correct answers).

A. Glucose uptake through SGLT-1

B. Na influx through Na channels

C. Na-K ATPase

D. Water fluxes through aquaporins

51. Which of the following processes does not exhibit 'saturation kinetics'?

A. Facilitated diffusion

B. Na+-Ca2+ exchanger

C. Simple diffusion

D. Na+ coupled active transport

52. Na-K-2Cl transporter in the apical membrane of the thick ascending

limb of the loop of Henle isan example of:

A. primary active transport

B. secondary active transport

C. passive transport

D. countertransport

53. Which of the following is an example of passive transport?

A. Calcium efflux by calcium pump

B. Na-Ca exchanger

C. Potassium efflux through potassium leak channels

D. Calcium sequestration in sarcoplasmic Reticulum

54. Which of the following ions is not transported across the cell membrane

by a primary active transport mechanism?

A. Na

B. Cl

C. K

D. Ca

55. No question rempoved due to graph no need

56. Emiocytosis requires an increase in the intracellular concentration of:

A. Na

B. K

C. Ca

D. Cl

57. How many transmembrane domains do G-protein coupled receptors

have?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 7

D. 12

58. How many subunits do G proteins have?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

59. Which G protein activates adenylyl cyclase?

A. Gs

B. Gq

C. Gi

D. Gl

60. Which subunit of G proteins has intrinsic GTPase activity?

A. Alpha

B. Beta

C. Gamma

D. Delta

61. Which of the following hormones does not act via a G-protein coupled

receptor in the cell membrane?

A. Thyrotropin releasing hormone

B. Angiotensin II

C. Antidiuretic hormone

D. Thyroxine

62. Which toxin inhibits the function of Gi?

A. Cholera toxin

B. Pertussis toxin

C. Forskolin

D. Saxitoxin

63. Which receptor does not span the cell membrane seven times?

A. Rhodopsin

B. Beta-adrenergic receptor

C. Insulin receptor

D. M2 receptor

64. The second messengers in the phosphatidyl inositol cascade are:

A. IP3, DAG and calcium

B. protein kinases A (PKA) and C

C. cAMP and cAMP dependent PKA

D. cGMP and calcium

65. Which of the following stimulates the release of calcium from the

endoplasmic reticulum?

A. IP3 B. PTH

C. 1, 25 (OH)2

D3 D. DAG

66. Protein kinase C is activated by:

A. IP3

B. diacylglycerol (DAG)

C. cAMP

D. guanylyl cyclase

67. Which of the following is not a second messenger in a signal

transduction pathway?

A. cAMP

B. Guanylyl cyclase

C. Inositol trisphosphate

D.Diacyclglycerol

E. Steroid hormone – receptor complex

68. The smooth muscle relaxing effects of endothelium derived relaxing

factor nitric oxide are mediated by an increase in intracellular level of:

A. cAMP

B. cGMP

C. calcium

D. endothelin

69. Which of the following hormones or growth factors does not signal via

receptor tyrosine kinases?

A. Insulin

B. ANP

C. Epidermal growth factor

D. Platelet derived growth factor

70. Guanylyl cyclases are activated by:

A. CO, NO and ANP

B. NO, ANP and ET1

C. AII, NO and ANP

D. ANP, ET1 and AII

 

71. Which of the following hormone(s) mediate(s) its effects by activating

nuclear / cytosolic receptors? (Select all correct answers).

A. Thyroxine

B. Retinoic acid

C. Estradiol

D. Progesterone

E. Aldosterone

F. Cortisol

G. 1, 25 (OH)2 D3

72. Which intercellular junctions directly allow the passage of small

molecules and ions between the cytosol of one cell and its neighbor without

movement into interstitial fluid?

A. Gap junctions

B. Focal adhesions

C. Zonula occludens

D. Desmosomes

73. Gap junctions are made up of a protein called:

A. connexin

B. clathrin

C. cadherin

D. calcineurin

74. Connexins do not allow the passage of:

A. polypeptides

B. Na ions

C. Ca ions

D. inositol trisphosphate

E. amino acids

75. The philosophy that all vital mechanisms are directed toward

maintaining constancy of composition of the internal environment and that

this is necessary for the sustenance of life was first propounded by:

A. Claude Bernard

B. Walter B Cannon

C. William Harvey

D. Alan Hodgkin

76. The term ‘homeostasis’ was coined by:

A. Claude Bernard

B. Walter B Cannon

C. Homer Smith

D. William Harvey

77. The core body temperature of an experimental animal is raised from

98oF to 106oF by passive heating. Eventually, it dropped to 99oF. What is

the gain of the temperature regulation system in this instance?

A. Zero

B. One

C. -7

D. Infinity

78. Which of the following statements about negative feedback control

systems is incorrect?

A. Output is one of the inputs to the system.

B. It is based on a ‘set-point’ for the controlled variable.

C. The system corrects “errors”.

D. The ‘set point’ of the system cannot be changed by inputs other than the

controlled variable.

79. The SI unit of pressure is:

A. mm Hg

B. cm H2O

C. Pascal

D. Torr

80. The diameter of a red blood cell is approximately:

A. 7 × 10-3 m

B. 7 × 10-6 m

C. 7 × 10-9 m

D. 7 × 10-10 m

81. The volume of a red blood cell is approximately:

A. 8 × 10-10 liter

B. 80 cubic microliter

C. 85 microns

D. 90 femtoliter

82. Which of the following quantities is dimensionless?

A. Specific gravity of plasma

B. Osmolality of urine

C. Resistance to air flow

D. Ejection fraction

E. Filtration fraction

F. Diffusion coefficient

83. If an individual is breathing 15 times per minute, respiratory frequency

is approximately:

A. 0.1 Hz

B. 0.15 Hz

C. 0.2 Hz

D. 0.25 Hz

E. 0.3 Hz

84. If intracellular and extracellular calcium are 2 millimoles per liter and

100 nanomoles per liter, the ratio of intracellular and extracellular calcium

is approximately:

A. 200

B. 2000

C. 20000

D. 200000

85. The mass of 1 mole of potassium is 39 g. If the potassium chloride

concentration of a solution is 39 mg %, the concentration of potassium in

this solution is closest to:

A. 1 mmol/L

B. 3.9 mmol/L

C. 10 mmol/L

D. 100 mmol/L

86. If the pH of a urine sample is 5.4, and the pH of arterial plasma is 7.4,

the ratio of concentration of hydrogen ions in the urine sample and plasma

is approximately:

A. 0.8

B. 2

C. 10

D. 100

87. What is the ratio of the concentration of hydrogen ions in gastric juice

(pH 1.4) and arterial plasma (pH 7.4)?

A. 103

B. 104

C. 105

D. 106

88. The [H+] of arterial plasma is normally about:

A. 20 nmol/L

B. 30 nmol/L

C. 40 nmol/L

D. 50 nmol/L

89. In each of the options below, [H+] is expressed in nanomoles/L, PaCO2

is in mm Hg and [HCO3] in mmol/L. Which of the following is true?

A. PaCO2 = [H+] × [HCO3] B. [H+] = 24 [PaCO2] / [HCO3]

90. Normally, the ratio of PaCO2 and plasma HCO3 is:

A. 1.2

B. 1.4

C. 1.6

D. 1.8

91. The Henderson-Hasselbalch equation states that when a buffer acid is

half dissociated the pH of the solution is equal to:

A. pKa

B. 7.0

C. 2 pKa

D. 0.5 pKa

92. A buffer is most effective when the pH of the solution is close to:

A. 0.5 pKa

B. pKa

C. 2 pKa

93. The most abundant protein in mammalian cells is:

A. actin

B. collagen

C. titin

D. dystrophin

94. The diameter of which of the following cytoskeletal components is the

least?

A. Microfilaments

B. Intermediate filaments

C. Microtubules

95. Which of the following is an example of a ligand-gated ion channel?

A. Nicotinic Ach receptor (nAchR)

B. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

C. 5 HT receptor

D. Histamine 2 receptor

96. Which of the following is an example of juxtacrine communication?

A. Cell-cell anchors caused by interactions between TGF and TGF receptors on

adjacent cells

B. Passage of ions and small molecules between the cytosols of adjacent cells

through connexons.

C. Attachment of cell membrane to basal lamina via integrins.

97. We speak of second messengers in signal transduction pathways. In the

case of epinephrine acting on beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the SA node,

the first messenger is:

A. epinephrine

B. beta-1 adrenergic receptor

C. the alpha subunit of Gs protein

D. adenylyl cyclase

98. Activation of which of the following enzymes leads to formation of

diacylglycerol and inositol 1,4,5 trisphosphate?

A. Cyclooxygenase

B. Hormone sensitive lipase

C. Lipocortin

D. Phospholipase A2

E. Phospholipase C

99. Which of the following is not known to act via a G-protein coupled

receptor in target cell membranes?

A. Acetylcholine

B. Aldosterone

C. Epinephrine

D. Histamine

100. Dimerization of which of the following hormone receptors is essential

for signaling?

A. Acetylcholine receptor

B. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor

C. Growth hormone receptor

D. Histamine receptor

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Pharmaceutical Analysis:- Click here 

Cosmetic Notes:- Click here 

Pharmacology:- Click here 

Pharmaceutics :- Click here 

Pharmacognosy:- Click here